Early Guitars and Vihuela

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Ok... One more burning question for me. Actually, Martin McDowell brings this up in another thread about Jerry Willard. Having just gotten an instrument I am (of course?) beginning with Gaspar Sanz - hey, the facsimiles are free. I also have tried playing some pieces with bordones and without. Oddly enough, I found that the re-entrant tuning is imperative in some passages, but the unison for the G string then introduces the same problem for other passages. In other words, it seems removing the bordones minimizes the likelihood of breaking a melodic line, but doesn't eliminate it. It would seem that Zanz did not write around the G string in a way to completely eliminate the problem. (Understandable -- That would have been too restrictive, and probably not in keeping with the ethic of the times.)

I can provide examples where I find the bordones called for, if you like. (It may be a good idea, because the problem could well be my ignorance.)

Anyway, I find that I can convincingly play with bordones, and only strike the higher octave when the melodic line calls for it. I say convincingly because it doesn't always work out (in the excitement of playing a passage), but the higher voice does come through. Definitely, for many passages it's worth the effort to *not* strike the lower note at all... The sound is angelic.

I tried listening closely to the performances posted here, and I can't decide whether I'm hearing bordones or not.

So the question is, how many people prefer to play the Sanz tabalatures without bordones? Should I take them off and spend a month getting used to that sound? Or should I try to be fancy and strike them discretely? What are your opinions and experiences?

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Ah, yes I did. Very nice work, but I have to say that I believe I did hear bordones, especially on the Pasacalle sobre la D. I'm really convinced that the vast majority of players use bordones for Sanz. I have to look into the other Italian composers (or other composers influenced by that "modern Italian" music) and see how performers handle them, but I suspect the same will be true.

Let me be clear -- I'm not complaining or passing judgment. In fact, if I had the skill to convincingly play with bordones on the instrument but not strike them when I choose, I probably would. I for one cannot possibly afford two instruments. I think historical arguments notwithstanding, the practice of the day is to use bordones. (I still haven't heard anybody in this group say one way or the other concerning his or her personal practice, which was my original question... Glad to know there's still controversy, and players are still keeping secrets after all these centuries.)
Well - I use the "French" tuning (which is really Corbetta's tuning) for everything - Sanz included. i.e. a bordon on the 4th course but not the 5th. I do think the idea that somehow all the idiosyncracies in the music can be eliminated either with the right method of stringing or with the right technique (whatever that is) is misguided. The guitar isn't just a inferior 5-course lute, it is different and these idiocycracies are what gives it its unique character. If you want the full low down on the stringing of the 5-course guitar you can find it on my web page www.monicahall.co.uk - there is a survey of the most important sources with English translations and illustrations. I have also written a booklet on the topic - which is dear to my heart - which is published by the Lute Society in England. You can order it via their web site....
Point taken - the guitar is to be played on its own terms. I admit starting with the expectation that everything would be totally proper (whatever *that* means) once I got a baroque guitar. That went away quickly, and was replaced by much delight.

I also realized that the venerable Mr. MacKillop has recorded much of the Sanz work without bordones. And they're very nice recordings, too.

Oh, and thanks for bravely revealing your secrets. Yet another variation to try...

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