Ok... One more burning question for me. Actually, Martin McDowell brings this up in another thread about Jerry Willard. Having just gotten an instrument I am (of course?) beginning with Gaspar Sanz - hey, the facsimiles are free. I also have tried playing some pieces with bordones and without. Oddly enough, I found that the re-entrant tuning is imperative in some passages, but the unison for the G string then introduces the same problem for other passages. In other words, it seems removing the bordones minimizes the likelihood of breaking a melodic line, but doesn't eliminate it. It would seem that Zanz did not write around the G string in a way to completely eliminate the problem. (Understandable -- That would have been too restrictive, and probably not in keeping with the ethic of the times.)
I can provide examples where I find the bordones called for, if you like. (It may be a good idea, because the problem could well be my ignorance.)
Anyway, I find that I can convincingly play with bordones, and only strike the higher octave when the melodic line calls for it. I say convincingly because it doesn't always work out (in the excitement of playing a passage), but the higher voice does come through. Definitely, for many passages it's worth the effort to *not* strike the lower note at all... The sound is angelic.
I tried listening closely to the performances posted here, and I can't decide whether I'm hearing bordones or not.
So the question is, how many people prefer to play the Sanz tabalatures without bordones? Should I take them off and spend a month getting used to that sound? Or should I try to be fancy and strike them discretely? What are your opinions and experiences?